|An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
|Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
|Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
|What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
|Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
|Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
|Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
|Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)
|What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?
|Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
|What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
|Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
|A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10.70.128.0/19 to meet these requirements: ✑ The first subnet must support 24 hosts. ✑ The second subnet must support 472 hosts. ✑ Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block. Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
|Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
|What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
|Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?
|Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
|Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
|What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
|Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?
|What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
|Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
|Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router 1. The new circuit uses eBGP and learns the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
|Refer to the exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
|Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
|A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
|You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?
|Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
|Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
|Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
|Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
|Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
|Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
|What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
|Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
|You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
|Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
|A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?
|Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
|Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
|How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
|Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
|When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
|What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
|How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
|Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?
|An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
|A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?
|What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
|What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two.)
|Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
|What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
|Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.)
|Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two.)
|What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
|How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
|Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
|What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
|Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
|A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
|Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. What is the reason for the problem?
|What is the difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
|Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
|Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
|Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:41:86:07 – SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 – SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D – SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 –
|Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
|What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. Which action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
|An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
|Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
|Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
|Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
|What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
|Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
|Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
|Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
|What are network endpoints?
|How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
|Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
|Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?
|Refer to the exhibit. After the election process, what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN? Switch 1: 0C:E0:38:81:32:58 – Switch 2: 0C:0E:15:22:1A:61 – Switch 3: 0C:0E:15:1D:3C:9A – Switch 4: 0C:E0:19:A1:4D:16 –
|When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
|A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
|What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
|Which two conditions must be met before SSH operates normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two.)
|The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. What are two reasons for the interface condition? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN, and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN. Which configuration meets these requirements?
|How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
|Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
|Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?
|Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured. Which command accomplishes this task?
|Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
|Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?
|In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
|What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
|An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
|Refer to the exhibit. Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process. Branch-1: priority 614440 – Branch-2: priority 39391170 – Branch-3: priority 0 – Branch-4: root primary – Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
|Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
|An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
|What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
|An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database, with action must be taken?
|Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
|Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
|An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
|What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
|A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
|Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
|Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
|What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
|What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
|What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
|A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement?
|Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
|By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
|Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
|Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
|How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
|How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
|Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
|A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network is allowed to be mapped?
|What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
|What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
|Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
|An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be executed for Gi1/1 on SW1 to passively become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
|Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
|Refer to the exhibit. A router received these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two.)
|Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
|How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?
|In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
|What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?
|Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFV2 to operate? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2, while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?
|A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
|What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two.)
|Which statement about LLDP is true?
|What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
|Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring the New York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it reaches the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two.)
|Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
|For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
|Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
|Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?
|When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?
|Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
|Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
|Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
|Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
|Which technology prevents client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
|What occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
|Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
|Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic?
|Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two.)
|How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
|Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
|You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network – one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?
|What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
|Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
|What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
|Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
|Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
|A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?
|Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
|What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)
|How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
|Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
|Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
|Which network action occurs within the data plane?
|Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
|An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description type length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented?
|Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
|Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?
|When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
|Refer to the exhibit. Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building. What must be the configuration of the connection?
|What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
|What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
|Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.)
|Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?
|On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
|Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?
|In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
|Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
|Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?
|Refer to the exhibit. R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?
|When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
|An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
|Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
|Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
|An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
|Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?
|What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.)
|Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?
|What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
|After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two.)
|An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP. Neighbor discovery is disabled. Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
|A corporate office uses four floors in a building. ✑ Floor 1 has 24 users. ✑ Floor 2 has 29 users. ✑ Floor 3 has 28 users. Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
|Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?
|What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?
|Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
|Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
|Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)