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Questions Cisco 350 401 ENCOR

Questions Cisco 350 401 ENCOR

Questions Cisco 350 401 ENCOR

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP version is changed from 1 to 2?
Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two.)
When configuring WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?
A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points are joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same. Which type of roam occurs?
In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one AP to another on a different access switch using a single WLC?
Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?
Which action is a function of VTEP in VXLAN?
Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?
Which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?
An engineer reconfigures the port-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1’s log: *Mar 1 09:47:22.245: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: bpduguard error detected on Gi0/0, putting Gi0/0 in err-disable state Which command set resolves this error?
Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite?
Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.)
An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)
VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server. Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?
When a wired client connects to an edge switch in a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network?
What is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM?
Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?
An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled. Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN. Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OUIs?
Which statement about VXLAN is true?
An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplishes this task?
Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?
Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?
Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary?
Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network?
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints?
Which two security features are available when implementing NTP? (Choose two.)
What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.)
Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?
Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue?
What is used to perform QoS packet classification?
Router1 is currently operating as the HSRP primary with a priority of 110. Router1 fails and Router2 takes over the forwarding role. Which command on Router1 causes it to take over the forwarding role when it returns to service?
What is a Type 1 hypervisor?
Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)
How do cloud deployments differ from on-premises deployments?
What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?
An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router, the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error?
Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?
In Cisco SD-WAN, which protocol is used to measure link quality?
What is a characteristic of a virtual machine?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures a GRE tunnel and enters the show interface tunnel command. What does the output confirm about the configuration?
Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)
An engineer is configuring GigabitEthernet1/0/0 for VRRP. When the router has the highest priority in group 5, it must assume the master role. Which command set should the engineer add to the configuration to accomplish this task? interface GigabitEthernet1/0/0 description To IDF A 38-70-774-10 ip address 172.16.13.2 255.255.255.0
Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting, a network engineer finds that after the user is disconnected, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs: AP ‘AP2’ is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:54:04 PM AP ‘AP4’ is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:44:49 PM AP ‘AP7’ is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:34:32 PM Which action reduces the user impact?
What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?
Which feature is supported by EIGRP but is not supported by OSPF?
Refer to the exhibit. On which interfaces should VRRP commands be applied to provide first hop redundancy to PC-01 and PC-02?
Which DHCP option helps lightweight APs find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller?
An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172 16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I- E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows: Network 172.16.100.0 255.255.255.0 Default Router 172.16.100.1 – Option 43 ASCII 172.16.50.5 – The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?
What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?
If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?
What mechanism does PIM use to forward multicast traffic?
Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments in a VXLAN environment?
Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type2 hypervisor?
In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?
A network administrator has designed a network with two multilayer switches on the distribution layer, which act as default gateways for the end hosts. Which two technologies allow every end host in a VLAN to use both gateways? (Choose two.)
What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.)
While configuring an IOS router for HSRP with a virtual IP of 10.1.1.1, an engineer sees this log message. Jan 1 12:12:12.111 : %HSRP-4-DIFFVIP1: GigabitEthernet0/0 Grp 1 active routers virtual IP address 10.1.1.1 is different to the locally configured address 10.1.1.25 Which configuration change must the engineer make?
A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilitates a migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?
What is the data policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?
Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two.)
The following system log message is presented after a network administrator configures a GRE tunnel: %TUN-RECURDOWN Interface Tunnel 0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing Why is Tunnel 0 disabled?
What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process?
Which statement about a fabric access point is true?
What is a benefit of a virtual machine when compared with a physical server?
What is the role of a fusion router in an SD-Access solution?
What is the role of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEthernet1 interface. Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection?
An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required?
What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.)
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?
What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?
What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?
What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?
Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two.)
What is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor?
What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?
What are two considerations when using SSO as a network redundancy feature? (Choose two.)
Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD-Access architecture?
In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of a fabric edge node?
Which NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source?
Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?
What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute, memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?
A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running a Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are made, the port channel does not establish. Based on the configuration excerpt of SW3, what is the cause of the problem?
How does the RIB differ from the FIB?
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?
What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses?
Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?
Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?
What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200?
A local router shows an EBGP neighbor in the Active state. Which statement is true about the local router?
Which DHCP option provides the CAPWAP APs with the address of the wireless controller(s)?
Which statement about multicast RPs is true?
A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements: ✑ FHRP redundancy ✑ multivendor router environment ✑ IPv4 and IPv6 hosts Which protocol does the design include?
Which two actions provide controlled Layer 2 network connectivity between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two.)
What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?
What it the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?
What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.)
When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experienced for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem?
Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?
Which element enables communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment?
Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on Type 1 hypervisors?
Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?
Which feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF?
In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings?
What are two benefits of virtual switching when compared to hardware switching? (Choose two.)
What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose two.)
MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared?
Which two network problems indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two.)
An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish this task? Initial Configuration – interface GigabitEthernet0/0 description To IDF A 38-24-044.40 ip address 172.16.13.2 255.255.255.0
Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers?
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?
In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?
Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?
In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router?
What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?
Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
What is the difference between CEF and process switching?
Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)
How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric?
Where is radio resource management performed in a Cisco SD-Access wireless solution?
What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN?
Which technology does VXLAN use to provide segmentation for Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic?
Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol should be used to meet a design requirement for more efficient default gateway bandwidth usage across multiple devices?
What is one fact about Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployments?
Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?
Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site?
What is required for a virtual machine to run?
How is 802.11 traffic handled in a fabric-enabled SSID?
What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)
What function does VXLAN perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?
Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?
Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol in a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain?
A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a Wi-Fi solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?

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